This week golf has been once again dominated by rules issues.
Rules are rules we all no that, but there seems to be a body of opinion that there is one rule for some and one rule for others, well one.
At this years Masters, after a call in by a TV Viewer. Tiger Woods was assessed a 2 stroke penalty for an “illegal drop”, the penalty was applied after Mr Woods had signed his card.
Under rule 33-7/4.5 the player can avoid disqualification due to limited circum stances! I am being serious!
In layman terms if a player is reported for violating rules from an “out side” source, eg some saddo sitting in front of their TV with nothing better to do, a penalty can be applied to the player, even after they have signed their card, there fore avoiding a DQ, got it?
Now at no point is there anything mentioned about a player “knowingly” breaking the rules.
Yesterday Simon Dyson was disqualified from the BMW Masters under rule 6-6d for signing an incorrect scorecard.
A saddo called in a rules violation, 16-1a, on Dyson.
Basically Simon had marked his ball then touched the line of his putt.
When shown the video evidence Dyson could not even remember doing it.
So why was rule 33-7/4.5 applied to Dyson??
That not a rhetorical question! Somebody PLEASE tell me what the difference is?
Dyson had not teed off so why?
There are those out there who may say one rule for Tiger and one for the rest, would you?
Now I am no Brandel Chamblee, thank god, so I am not accusing any player of cheating.
I have no doubt that certain players do use rules to their advantage, if you disagree with that then I am sorry for interrupting you while you write your letter to Santa.
I will hold my hands up to that one! I have deliberately played into GUR from a bad lie knowing it would give me a better chance with my 3rd shot as opposed to trying to genuinely play from a bad lie.
Is that cheating or simply using the rules to my advantage ??
At the 2002 Open I saw an Open Champion from a bunker on 18 deliberately hit it behind the stand to get a line of sight drop, did he cheat or was he using the rules to his advantage?
At the Masters I have no doubt Tiger should have been disqualified, why?
In his press conference after his round he explained what he had done regarding the drop, to me that constitutes “knowingly”.
Dyson should never have been disqualified because he never “knowingly” broke the rules.
What both incidents show is a complete lack of common sense in golf rules and rulings.
I think the time has come for us to throw out the lawyers and have 2nd grade English teachers rewrite the rules of golf!
The rules of golf are basic, the way they are written and presented is the issue.
Rules are rules we all no that, but there seems to be a body of opinion that there is one rule for some and one rule for others, well one.
At this years Masters, after a call in by a TV Viewer. Tiger Woods was assessed a 2 stroke penalty for an “illegal drop”, the penalty was applied after Mr Woods had signed his card.
Under rule 33-7/4.5 the player can avoid disqualification due to limited circum stances! I am being serious!
In layman terms if a player is reported for violating rules from an “out side” source, eg some saddo sitting in front of their TV with nothing better to do, a penalty can be applied to the player, even after they have signed their card, there fore avoiding a DQ, got it?
Now at no point is there anything mentioned about a player “knowingly” breaking the rules.
Yesterday Simon Dyson was disqualified from the BMW Masters under rule 6-6d for signing an incorrect scorecard.
A saddo called in a rules violation, 16-1a, on Dyson.
Basically Simon had marked his ball then touched the line of his putt.
When shown the video evidence Dyson could not even remember doing it.
So why was rule 33-7/4.5 applied to Dyson??
That not a rhetorical question! Somebody PLEASE tell me what the difference is?
Dyson had not teed off so why?
There are those out there who may say one rule for Tiger and one for the rest, would you?
Now I am no Brandel Chamblee, thank god, so I am not accusing any player of cheating.
I have no doubt that certain players do use rules to their advantage, if you disagree with that then I am sorry for interrupting you while you write your letter to Santa.
I will hold my hands up to that one! I have deliberately played into GUR from a bad lie knowing it would give me a better chance with my 3rd shot as opposed to trying to genuinely play from a bad lie.
Is that cheating or simply using the rules to my advantage ??
At the 2002 Open I saw an Open Champion from a bunker on 18 deliberately hit it behind the stand to get a line of sight drop, did he cheat or was he using the rules to his advantage?
At the Masters I have no doubt Tiger should have been disqualified, why?
In his press conference after his round he explained what he had done regarding the drop, to me that constitutes “knowingly”.
Dyson should never have been disqualified because he never “knowingly” broke the rules.
What both incidents show is a complete lack of common sense in golf rules and rulings.
I think the time has come for us to throw out the lawyers and have 2nd grade English teachers rewrite the rules of golf!
The rules of golf are basic, the way they are written and presented is the issue.
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